Ph.d Question on Human Genomics

Human Genomics

1.      In mammalian cells which of the following can transport organic molecules

A)      P-type transporters                              B) F-type transporters 

C) ABC transporters                                  D) E1-E2 type transporters

2.      Commensal microbiota provides defence against microorganism invading through

A)      Intestine                      B) Skin                        C) Lungs                     D) Gut

3.      Which of the following phenomenon can cause higher frequency of recessive allele

A)      Hetrozygote manifestation                 B) Heterozygote advantage C) Genetic drift                                             D) Bottleneck

4.      Mutation rate in humans is

A)      10^-6pgpg          B) 10^-9pgpg                 C) 10^-3pgpg     D) 10^-12pgpg

5.      How many generations of random mating is sufficient to establish HWE in the absence of any disturbing factor

A)      01                    B) 10              C) 02                           D) 100

6.      The cells which do not divide but can be induced to begin DNA synthesis & divide when given an appropriate stimulus are 

A)      Stem cells        B) Liver cells  C) Kidney cells           D) Epithelial cells

7.      D type cyclins bind to cdks during 

A)      G1-S phase                                          B) mid- G1 phase

C) G2-M phase                                           D) Early G1 phase

8.      7-TM (Seven transmembrane) receptors are also referred to as 

A) RTK receptors		B) GPC receptors
C) Ligand gated channels               9. Glucagon stimulates		D) Steroid hormone receptor
A) Lowering of blood sugar		B) Breakdown of glycogen
C) Breakdown of Glucose              10. Jackknifing is a method for		D) Biosynthesis of Gylcogen
A) Cluster analysis		B) Validation
C) Phylogeny		D) Homology analysis

11.  Chronic rejection of a transplant occurs after

A) 02 days             B) 10 days                   C) Immediate              D) Months

12.  Sudden emergence of new subtype of influenza could be due to 

A) Antigenic drift	B) Antigenic shift
C) Herd immunity                                       13. Philadelphia chromosome represents	D) Unhygienic conditions
A) Translocation between chr. 8 & 14	B) Translocation between chr. 9 & 22
C) Translocation between chr. 9 & 21	D) Translocation between chr. 8 & 21

14.  First eukaryotic genome to be completely sequenced was that of

A)  S.cerevisiae                                           B) S. pombe

C) C.elegans                                               D) D.melanogaster

15.  Restriction enzyme Not I cleaves at 5’-GCGGCCGC-3’. What would be the average distance between cleavage sites on digestion of double stranded DNA

A)  56 kb                 B) 66 kb                      C) 24 kb          D) 24 bp

16.  Aptamers are

A)  Short peptides                                       B) Short RNA sequences         

C) Antibodies                                             D) Short PCR products

17.  Phenocopy refers to 

A)  Genotype along with disease manifestation

B)   Genotype without disease manifestation

C)   Disease manifestation without genotype

D)  Absence of disease and genotype

18.  Sickel cell trait allele is a very good example of

A)  Positive selection                                  B) Neutral selection

C) Directional selection                              D) Balancing selection

19.  The first fully human antibody (Humira) has been approved for the treatment of

A) Retinitis pigmentosa		B) Rheumatoid Arthritis
C) Cancer                           20. Heritability refers to		D) Immunodeficiency
A) Total variance that is acquired		B) Fixed property of trait
C) Total variance that is genetic		D) Inheritance of trait

(2)

21.  When signalling molecule is tethered to transmitting cell surface and is bound by receptor on the surface of responding cell, it is 

A) Aotucrine signalling                              B) Paracrine signalling

C) Synaptic signalling                               D) Juxtacrine signalling

22.  Discovery of which of the following has made the cell based DNA cloning possible 

A) Type I restriction endonuclease	B) Type II restriction endonuclease
C) Type III restriction endonuclease  23. Retrogene refers to	D) DNA Taq polymerase
A) Evolutionarily degenerated gene	B) Special processed pseudogene
C) Special nonprocessed pseudogene	D) Bacterial gene

24.  As part of HGP, which of the four model organisms were prioritized for sequencing

A)  Chlamydomonas, S.cerevisiae, E.coli, mouse                            

B)   E.coli, mouse, D. melanogaster, zebrafish 

C)   C.elegans, P.falciparum, S.pombe, Chlamydomonas                                                    D) S. cerevisiae, E.coli, D.melanogater, mouse 

25.  If the probability of being blood type A is 1/8 and the probability of blood type O is ½, what is the probability of being either blood type A or O?

A)  5/8                     B) 1/8                          C) 1/2                          D) 1/16

26.  If two proteins have overall sequence identity of 50%, then the overall similarity will be

A)  Less than 50%                                       B) More than 50%

C) Cannot be more than 50%                     D) Can be less or more than 50%

27.  When two oppositely charged groups are close to each other, the interaction is called

A)  Salt bridge                                             B) H-bond

C) Covalent bond                                       D) Triple bond 

28.  The effective strength of hydrogen bonds will be

A) Unaffected by water molecules	B) Strengthened by water molecules
C) Weakened by water molecules       29. Disulfide bond is a	D) Totally destroyed by water molecules
A) Weak bond	B) Covalent bond
C) Non-covalent bond	D) A special bond

30.  Which of the following is not a unit of structure found in proteins? A) β sheets                     B) α helices                 C) Loop regions           D) γ loops

(3)

31.  RNA cannot adopt standard Watson-Crick double helical structure because of

A) Constraints on its sugar pucker	B) Absence of thymine
C) Single stranded                              32. The DNA double helix is quite	D) Presence of uracil
A) Unstable               B) Deformable 33. Adenosine platform is an	C) Reactive              D) Unstructured
A) DNA element	B) RNA structural motif
C) DNA structural motif                            34. An isolated α-helix in water	D) Protein element
A) Will remain as helix	B) Will become β-sheet
C) Will be unstable	D) Will further compact

35.  One amino acid among following usually breaks an alpha helix

A)                  Proline                         B) Glycine                   C) Leucine                   D) Valine 

36.  Upper limit of cell size is probably set by

A)                  Rate of diffusion of solute molecules in aq solutions   

B)                   Cell membrane

C)                   Genes                                       

D)                  Genome

37.  The Adaptor hypothesis by Crick is

A)                  About adaptation                                B) About evolution

            C) About tRNA                                              D) About electric circuits

38.  In serine proteases, catalytic triad cosnsists of

A)                  Serine, glycine, histidine                     B) Serine, histidine, aspartate

            C) Serine, proline, histidine               D) Serine, leucine, aspartate

39.  If one has to think of conducting a charge, which polymer is useful

A)                  Proteins                       B) DNA                      C) Polysaccharides      D) Lipids

40.  Coomassie brilliant blue binds to

A)                  Proteins specifically                            B) Nucleic acids non specifically       C) Proteins nonspecifically                       D) Nucleic acids specifically

(4)

41.  Imprinting involves

A)                  DNA polymerization                          B) DNA phosphorylation

            C) DNA methylation                                      D) DNA fragmentation

42.  Evolution is:

A)                  Directed to a goal                               B) An intelligent design

            C) A random ongoing process                        D) Over now

43.  Biological membranes are associated with all of the following except:

A)                  Free movement of proteins and  nucleic acids across the membrane               

B)                   Sites for biochemical reactions

C)                   Release of protons when damaged       

D)                  Prevention of free diffusion of ionic solutes 

44.  Side chain of serine can act as

A)                  An electrophile                                                B) A nucleophile         C) A buffer                                                 D) A hook

45.  The van der Waals radius of an atom is

A)                  A measure of the size of an atom            B) A measure of the bond that atom forms

            C) A measure of its charge                             D) A measure of its electric filed

46.  The only genetically encoded amino acid without a stereoisomer is:

A)                  Glycine                        B) Tryptophan             C) Lysine                     D) Proline

47.  Binomial distribution gives

A)                  The probability of events with binary outcomes    

B)                   The measurement of event in binary digits        

C)                   Precision of the measurement in binary digits      

D)                  Accuracy of the measurement in binary digits 

48.  Which of the following is not a process governed by molecular recognition?

A)                  Active transport                                              B) Passive diffusion

            C) Translation by the ribosome                       D) Transcription by RNA polymerase 

49.  Inverted repeat sequences are also called

A)                  Palindromes        B) Triplet repeats C) Nucleosomes  D) Double repeats 

50.  Which of the following is not involved in the process of translation?

A)                  EF-Tu                 B) EF-C                   C) EF-G            D) RF-3