Bio-Physics (Ph.D.)
1.
Which is the major force of attraction that stabilizes
the 3-D structure of globular protein?
A)
Hydrophobic force B)
Hydrogen bond C) Peptide bond D)
Vander Waals interactions
2.
Which of the following is unfavorable for protein
folding?
A)
Conformational entropy B)
Hydrophobic interaction C) Van
Der Waal’s interactions D)
Hydrogen bonding
3.
Under the influence of sunlight, x is synthesized in
our skin from y, where x and y respectively are
A)
Vitamin D, cholesterol B)
Vitamin C, collagen C) Vitamin A,
retinol D)
Vitamin B, starch
4.
The bond between first phosphate group attached to
sugar molecule in a nucleotide is
A)
Phosphoester B)
Phosphodiester C) Glycosidic D) Phosphoanhydride
5.
In an alpha-helical polypeptide, the backbone hydrogen
bonds are between
A)
NH of n and CO of n+4 amino acid
B)
CO of n and NH of n+3 amino acid
C)
CO of n and NH of n+4 amino acid
D)
NH of n and CO of n+3 amino acid
6.
In electron microscope, as compare to filament, the
potential on shield is always
A)
Positive B) Negative
C)
Zero D)
Random
7.
On excessive administration of digitalis
A)
Inversion of P wave take place B)
Elongation of QRS wave take place
C) Inversion of T wave take place D)
None of these
8.
Frequency range of beta rhythm in normal EEG
A)
8-13 Hz B) 18-30 Hz C)
1-3.5 Hz D) 4-7 Hz
9.
What is the main source of natural background
radiation?
A)
Electrons B)
X-rays C) Neutrons D)
Alpha-particles
10.
Which photon processes are dominant in the context of
diagnostic radiology?
A)
Compton scattering and photoelectric effect
B)
Photoelectric effect and pair production
C)
Compton scattering and pair production
D)
Compton and Rayleigh scattering
11.
Magnetic gradient in which direction selects slice
thickness in MRI
A)
X-axis B)
Y-axis C) Z-axis D)
All of these
12.
What does θ signifies in Brags equation: 2d Sin θ=nλ
A)
Angle between incident x-ray and diffracted x-ray
B)
Angle between incident x-ray and plane of crystal
C)
Angle between incident x-ray and protein molecule
D)
Angle between incident x-ray and x-ray grid
13.
201T81
has a decay constant of 9.49 × 10−3 hr−1. Find the activity in
becquerels of a sample containing 1010 atoms
A)
4.8 X 104 bq B) 12.6 X 104 bq C) 2.64 X 104
bq D)
8.42 X 104 bq
(hint Act=lambda Xnumber of atoms, 9.49 X10)
14. An
MRS system assumes a nominal frequency of exactly 300 MHz, the approximate
resonance frequency for protons in a 7-tesla magnetic field. The peak against
which other resonances are compared occurs at 300.004 MHz. Find the chemical
shift in parts per million for a peak that occurs at a resonance frequency of
299.998 MHz.
A)
10 ppm B) 20 ppm C)
30 ppm D)
40 ppm
15.
In MRI, which pulse sequence will give rise to T1
weighted image
A)
Echo planer pulse sequence
B)
Spin echo pulse sequence with long TR and long TE
C)
Spin echo pulse sequence with long TR and short TE
D)
Partial saturation pulse sequence
16.
Calculate the distance between parallel planes of cube
having miller indices 200
A)
a/2
B) a/4 C)
a/6 D)
a/8
17.
Calculate the total number of electrons bombarding the
target of an x-ray tube operated at 200 mA for 0.1 sec.
A)
200 X 1017 electrons B) 0.5 X 1017 electrons
C) 1.25 X 1017 electrons D)
25 X 1017 electrons
18.
Two double stranded DNA samples that are identical with
respect to the number of base pairs, but differs significantly in their GC
content, can be separated by.
A)
Density gradient centrifugation
B)
Agarose gel electrophoresis
C) Dialysis
D) Oligo-dT column
chromatography
(2)
19.
Which of the following is not true about RNA?
A)
RNA is chemically more reactive than DNA
B)
2’-OH prevents RNA to adopt B-conformation
C)
RNA was discovered by Hoppe-Seyler
D) Feulgen reaction is
performed by both DNA and RNA
20.
In the cell cycle:
A)
M-phase is both the most complex and the longest phase
B) There is a Go phase
in equilibrium with the G1 phase
C)
Quiescent cells cannot be induced to re-enter the cell
cycle
D)
Microtubule spindles form during the S-phase
21.
Which of the following modifications leads to protein
degradation?
A)
Methylation B) Acetylation C) Phosphorylation D) Ubiquitination
22.
The catabolite activating protein (CAP)
A)
Binds to allolactose
B)
Interacts with the β subunit of RNA polymerase
C)
Binds the operator sequence of the lac operon
D) Causes a binding in
the DNA near the start site of transcription
23.
Apoptosis or programmed cell death, occurs in all of
the following cases except
A)
In virus-infected cells
B) In cells damaged by
injury
C)
In cells with potentially cancer-causing mutations
D)
During the elimination of tissue between the digits in
the formation of human fingers
24.
At which of the following sites is the partial pressure
of carbon dioxide highest?
A)
Exhaled gas B)
Alveolar gas
C) Systemic arterial
blood D)
Systemic venous blood
25.
In an electrocardiogram, the QRS complex represents the
A)
Depolarisation of the atria B) Repolarisation
of the atria
C) Depolarisation of the ventricles D)
Repolarisation of ventricles
26.
Which of the following types of vector would be most
suitable for introducing DNA into a human cell?
A)
Plasmid B)
Bacteriophage C) Cosmid D) Adenovirus
27.
SDS-PAGE does not involve
A)
Separation of proteins based on their molecular
weights
B)
Denaturation of proteins with heat and chemicals
C)
Application of an electric field to proteins
D) Creating a temperature
gradient for denaturation of proteins
(3)
28.
The tertiary structure of protein is detected by
A)
X-ray diffraction/crystallography B)
Spectrophotometry
C) Electrophoresis D)
Chromatography
29.
T4 polynucleotide kinase is used for
A)
Removes 5’-phosphates from DNA and RNA
B) Transfers terminal
phosphate groups from ATP to 5’-OH groups
C)
Adds homopolymer tails to the 3’ end of DNA
D)
Used in mapping studies
30.
High doses of antibiotics can destroy the bacterial
flora of the large intestine. This can
result in impaired:
A)
Absorption of proteins
B) Blood
coagulation C) Bone resorption D) Respiratory control
31.
Aspirin, used as a common analgesic, antipyretic and
anti-inflammatory agent, inhibits the synthesis of which of the following?
A)
Arachidonic acid
B) Prostaglandins
C) Glucocorticoids D)
Histamine
32.
During the gluconeogenic conversion of pyruvate into
glucose in the liver, all of the following are involved except
A)
Pyruvate carboxylase
B) Phosphoenolpyruvate
carboxylase C)
Phosphoenolpyruvatecarboxykinase D)
Glucose
6-phosphatase
33.
Vitamin B complex
is an essential
for humans because
A)
It is obtained only from plant sources
B)
It is obtained only from animal sources
C) It act as cofactor for
various metabolic enzymes
D)
It is directly utilized in various metabolic
reactions
34.
Parts per billion can be represented as
A)
ng/Kg B) µg/Kg C) µl/l D) µg/g
35.
The outer part of cytoplasm is usually termed as
A)
Plasmasol B) Plasmagel
C) Nucleoplasm D) Protoplasm
36.
What is not a
toxic form of oxygen?
A)
Singlet oxygen B)
Facultative
oxygen
C) Superoxide free radicals D)
Hydroxyl radical
37.
Regulation of trp operon by binding of tryptophan to
trp repressor is termed as
A)
Repression B)
Induction C) Anti termination D)
Atteneution
(4)
38.
The peptide bond in proteins is
A)
Nonpolar,but rotates to three preferred dihedral angles
B)
Planar,but rotates to three preferred dihedral angles
C)
Nonpolar and fixed in a trans configuration
D) Planar and usually
found in the trans configuration
39.
Double chained DNA strand is made radioactive in both
its chains. It is allowed to replicate twice in non-radioactive medium. The
result would be
A)
All strands have radioactivity B) Half the strands have radioactivity
C) Three strands have
radioactivity D) Radioactivity is absent in all strands
40.
Which of the following event does not occur during pre
tRNA processing?
A)
5’ end cleavage by the RNase P B) Addition of poly(A)
site
C) Addition of CCA sequence at 3’ end D) Chemical modification of bases
41.
Most common type of phospholipids in the cell membrane
of nerve cells is
A)
Phosphatidylcholine B)
Phosphatidylinositol
C) Phosphatidylserine
D)
Sphingomylein
42.
Fluorescence recovery after photo bleaching in live
cells is used to determine
A)
Co-localization of proteins B) Distance between two organelles
C) Diffusion of proteins D)
Nucleic acid compactness
43.
Supercoiling of DNA is catalyzed by
A)
Type I topoisomerases B)
Type II
topoisomerases
C) Type III topoisomerases D)
Type IV topoisomerases
44.
The cylindrical channels in gap junctions are made
of
A)
Collagen B) Connexin C) Fibronectin
D) N-CAM
45.
Which part of the ear is responsible for detecting low
frequency sound waves?
A)
Cochlea B) Eustachian Tube C) Incus
D)
Ear canal
46.
Which one of the following is not a pro-inflammatory
cytokine:
A)
IL-1 B)
IL-6 C) IL-10 D)
TNF-α
47.
Antigens in tissues can be localized with fluorescent
antibodies using:
A)
Flow cytometer B)
Autoradiography
C) Electron
microscopy D)
Confocal
microscopy
48.
The Φ and Ψ values for β-sheets lies in
A)
1st
quadrant of Ramachandran plot B)
2nd quadrant
of Ramachandran plot
C) 3rd
quadrant of Ramachandran plot D)
4th quadrant of Ramachandran plot
(5)
49.
The homologous recombination is a DNA repair process
referred to as recombination repair. Which one of the following statements is
incorrect for recombination repair?
A)
DNA polymerase III stalls at the site of dna damage
B)
DNA polymerase III leaves a gap in the daughter strand
C)
The gap is filled by recombination between
complimentary parent strand homologous to daughter strand and the gapped
daughter strand
D) Homologous
recombination process is catalysed by topoisomerase II
50.
Pyrimidine biosynthesis is regulated by
A)
Dihydrofolate reductase B) Thymidylate synthase
C)
Hexokinase D)
Aspartate
transcaramoylase
x-x-x
Posts
No comments:
Post a Comment