Networking Question

1.You have a small office network of Windows NT and Windows 95 machines. One Windows NT machine will maintain a user account database for the network. Your network is a _______.
A. workgroup
B. domain
C. coterie
D. none of the above

2. _________ is a common fault-tolerance method.
A. Remote access
B. File service
C. RAIN
D. RAID

3. Your client computer isn’t able to access services on other network PCs. It could be a problem with the ________ on your client computer.
A. reflector
B. redirector
C. server service
D. none of the above

4. You need to add a server to your domain that will compensate for the shortage of disk space on many of the older machines. You will be adding _________.
A. a peer
B. an application server
C. a file-and-print server
D. both A and C

5. You have a small office of Windows NT and Windows 95 computers. Each machine is responsible for its own security. Your network is a ________.
A. workgroup
B. domain
C. WAN
D. none of the above.

6.You need to add a server to your domain that will provide services designed to alleviate the problems caused by slow processor speeds on many of the older machines. You will be adding __.
A. a peer
B. an application server
C. a file-and-print server
D. both A and C

7. You are designing a small network for a single office. The network will have nine users, each operating from one of nine networked PCs. The users are all accustomed to working with computers. The best solution is to use the _________ networking model.
A. server-based
B. peer-to-peer
C. a combination of A and B
D. any of the above

8.You are designing a small network for a single office. The network will have approximately 19 users who will roam freely among the 14 participating PCs. The best solution is to use
the ________ networking model.
A. server-based
B. peer-to-peer
C. a combination of A and B
D. any of the above
9. Which type of network is most likely confined to a building
or a campus?
A. Local area
B. Metropolitan area
C. Wide area
D. Departmental

10. Which of the following can concurrently provide and request services?
A. Server
B. Client
C. Peer
D. None of the above

11. The rules that govern computer communication are called ______.
A. protocols
B. media
C. services
D. network operating systems

12. Which file service is responsible for creating duplicate copies of files to protect against file damage?
A. File transfer
B. File-update synchronization
C. File archiving
D. Remote file access

13. Which two of the following are file services?
A. Archiving
B. Remote file access
C. Update synchronization
D. Data integrity

14. Which three statements are true regarding application services?
A. Clients request services.
B. Application services lack scalability.
C. Application servers can be optimized to specialize in a service.
D. Multiple services can be offered by the same server PC.

15. Which three statements are true regarding database services?
A. A database server improves data security.
B. All data must be located on the main database server.
C. Database performance may be optimized.
D. Database services enable multiple clients to share a database.

16. Which are the two most popular strategies for replication databases?
A. Remote file access
B. File-update synchronization
C. Locally driven update
D. Master server update

17. Which three are advantages of a centralized approach to providing file services?
A. Centralized files may be readily archived.
B. It provides the best possible performance.
C. Management is efficient.
D. The cost of high-performance, high-reliability servers can be spread across many users.

18. Which two are advantages of a distributed approach to providing file services?
A. There is no central point of failure.
B. It’s less difficult to manage than a complex, centralized server.
C. It’s easily scaled to improve performance for all users.
D. Specialized equipment is not required

1. The OSI model organizes communication protocols into how many layers?
A. 3
B. 7
C. 17
D. 56

2. The layers of the OSI model (in order) are included in which of the following choices?
A. Physical, Data Link, Network, Transport, System, Presentation, Application
B. Physical, Data Link, Network, Transport, Session, Presentation, Application
C. Physical, Data Link, Network, Transform, Session, Presentation, Application
D. Presentation, Data Link, Network, Transport, Session, Physical, Application

3. In the OSI model, what is the relationship of a layer (N) to the layer above it (layer N+1)?
A. Layer N provides services for layer N+1.
B. Layer N+1 adds a header to information received from layer N.
C. Layer N utilizes services provided by layer N+1.
D. Layer N has no effect on layer N+1.

4. Two different computer types can communicate if __________.
A. they conform to the OSI model
B. they are both using TCP/IP
C. they are using compatible protocol stacks
D. they are a Macintosh and a Unix workstation

5. Which three of the following statements regarding protocol stacks are true?
A. A given protocol stack can run on only one computer type.
B. Layers add headers to packets received from higher layers in the protocol stack.
C. A protocol stack is a hierarchical set of protocols.
D. Each layer provides services for the next-highest layer.

6. Which protocol layer enables multiple devices to share the transmission medium?
A. Physical
B. MAC
C. LLC
D. Network

7. Which switching method employs virtual circuits?
A. Message
B. Circuit
C. Packet
D. All the above

8. Which OSI layer is concerned with data encryption?
A. Network
B. Transport
C. Session
D. Presentation

9. Which switching method makes the most efficient use of network bandwidth?
A. Message
B. Circuit
C. Packet
D. All methods are about equal

10. What is another name for a message-switching network?
A. Connectionless
B. Datagram
C. Store-and-forward
D. Virtual circuit

11. Which two statements about virtual circuits are true?
A. They usually are associated with connection-oriented services.
B. A virtual circuit represents a specific path through the network.
C. A virtual circuit appears to the connected devices as a dedicated network path.
D. Virtual circuits dedicate a communication channel to a single conversation.

12. Which three of the following terms are related?
A. Port
B. Connection ID
C. Socket
D. Service address

13. Which switching method fragments messages into small units that are routed through independent paths?
A. Message
B. Packet
C. Circuit
D. Virtual

14. Which two of the following methods of dialog control provide two-way communication?
A. Simple duplex
B. Simplex
C. Half-duplex
D. Full-duplex

15. Dialog control is a function of which layer of the OSI reference model?
A. Network
B. Transport
C. Session
D. Presentation

16. Which three of the following are functions of session administration?
A. Connection establishment
B. Checksum error detection
C. Data transfer
D. Connection release

17. Which two of the following are functions of connection establishment?
A. Resumption of interrupted communication
B. Verification of logon name and password
C. Determination of required services
D. Acknowledgment of data receipt

18. Which two of the following are possible functions of the Presentation layer?
A. Data encryption
B. Presentation of data on display devices
C. Data translation
D. Display format conversion

19. Which three of the following are possible functions of the Application layer?
A. Network printing service
B. End-user applications
C. Client access to network services
D. Service advertisement

20. PPP operates at which two of the following OSI layers?
A. Physical
B. Data Link
C. Network
D. Transport

21. SLIP supports which of the following transport protocols?
A. IPX/SPX
B. NetBEUI
C. TCP/IP
D. All the above

22. IEEE 802.3 is associated with which of the following network architectures?
A. Token Ring
B. Ethernet
C. Internet
D. None of the above

23. IEEE 802.5 is associated with which of the following network architectures?
A. Token Ring
B. Ethernet
C. Internet
D. None of the above

24. NDIS describes the interface between __________ and __________.
A. user
B. network transport protocol
C. Physical layer
D. network adapter driver

1. Which two of the following are true about coaxial Thinnet:
A. Thinnet cable is approximately 0.5 in. thick.
B. Thinnet has 50-ohm impedance.
C. Thinnet is sometimes called Standard Ethernet.
D. Thinnet cable includes an insulation layer.

2. Transceivers for Thicknet cables are often connected using________.
A. ghost taps
B. vampire taps
C. witch widgets
D. skeleton clamps

3. Which two of the following are true about UTP?
A. You can use an RJ-11 connector with an RJ-45 socket.
B. UTP has the lowest cost of any cabling system except Thinnet.
C. Telephone systems use UTP.
D. UTP is more sensitive to EMI than Thinnet.

4. Which of the following is not a permissible location for coaxial PVC cabling?
A. A bathroom
B. Above a drop ceiling
C. Outside
D. Along an exterior wall

5. UTP Category 3 uses ________ twisted-pair(s) of cables.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 8

6. Transmission rates of _________ are typical for fiber-optic cables.
A. 10 Mbps
B. 25 Mbps
C. 100 Mbps
D. 500 Mbps
7. _________ is a transceiver that connects a wireless node with the LAN.
A. An access provider
B. An access point
C. A Central Access Device (CAD)
D. A Wireless Access Device (WAD)

8. _________ transmissions are designed to reflect the light beam off walls, floors, and ceilings until it finally reaches the receiver.
A. Reflective infrared
B. Scatter infrared
C. Spread-spectrum infrared
D. None of the above

9. Which three of the following are forms of mobile network technology?
A. Cellular
B. Packet-radio
C. Wireless bridge
D. Satellite station

10. Which of the following cable types supports the greatest cable lengths?
A. Unshielded twisted-pair
B. Shielded twisted-pair
C. Thicknet coaxial cable
D. Thinnet coaxial cable

11. What are two advantages of UTP cable?
A. Low cost
B. Easy installation
C. High resistance to EMI due to twists in cable
D. Cabling of up to 500 meters

12. What are two benefits of shielding in a cable?
A. Reduction in signal attenuation
B. Reduction in EMI radiation
C. Reduction in sensitivity to outside interference
D. None of the above

13. What are two disadvantages of fiber-optic cable?
A. Sensitive to EMI
B. Expensive hardware
C. Expensive to install
D. Limited in bandwidth

14. Which cable type is ideal for connecting between two buildings?
A. UTP
B. STP
C. Coaxial
D. Fiber-optic

15. As frequency increases, radio transmission becomes increasingly ______.
A. attenuated
B. rapid
C. line-of-sight
D. sensitive to electromagnetic interference

16. Which two statements are true of microwave systems?
A. Microwave transmissions do not attenuate under any conditions.
B. All microwave systems operate in the low-gigahertz range.
C. Microwave signals are sensitive to EMI and electronic eavesdropping.
D. Unlike most other types of radio transmitters, microwave transmitters don’t need to be licensed.

17. DIN Connectors are primarily used for __________.
A. connecting UTP cables
B. cabling Macintosh computers to AppleTalk networks
C. connecting devices with Thick-wire Ethernet
D. none of the above

18. Which two connectors are frequently used with STP cable?
A. T-connectors
B. RJ-45 connectors
C. IBM unisex connectors
D. AppleTalk DIN connectors

19. Which two connectors are commonly used with coaxial cable?
A. DB-25 connectors
B. N-connectors
C. ST-connectors
D. BNC connectors

20. Which two statements are true of Thinnet cabling?
A. A T-connector must be used to connect the PC’s network board to the network.
B. Either end of the cable can be terminated, but not both ends.
C. BNC connectors cannot be used.
D. One terminator must be grounded.

1. CSMA/CD uses which two of the following techniques to control collisions?
A. Nodes broadcast a warning before they transmit.
B. Nodes listen for a clear line before they transmit.
C. Nodes request and are given control of the medium before transmitting.
D. Nodes listen while they transmit and stop transmitting if another signal interferes with the transmission.

2. The maximum size of a CSMA/CD network is __________.
A. 100 meters
B. 300 meters
C. 1,500 meters
D. 2,500 meters

3. CSMA/CA is commonly used by __________.
A. Microsoft networks
B. LocalTalk networks
C. Fast Ethernet networks
D. 10BASE5 networks.

4. Which three of the following network architectures use the token passing access method?
A. IEEE 802.4
B. FDDI
C. Token Ring
D. IEEE 802.3

5. If you see a group of networked computers connected to a central hub, you know that the network has a __________physical topology.
A. ring
B. star
C. bus
D. can’t tell

6. If you see a group of networked computers connected to a central hub, you know that the network has a __________ logical topology.
A. ring
B. star
C. bus
D. can’t tell

7. The __________ topology uses fiber-optic cable.
A. 10BASE2
B. 10BASE5
C. 10BASE-T
D. none of the above

8. The __________ topology uses Thicknet cable.
A. 10BASE2
B. 10BASE5
C. 10BASE-T
D. none of the above

9. The __________ topology uses UTP cable.
A. 10BASE2
B. 10BASE5
C. 10BASE-T
D. none of the above

10. The __________ topology uses Thinnet cable.
A. 10BASE2
B. 10BASE5
C. 10BASE-T
D. none of the above

11. 10BASE5 networks cannot exceed a maximum length of__________.
A. 185 meters
B. 300 meters
C. 500 meters
D. 1,000 meters

12. Which two of the following are characteristics of a 10BASE-T network but not a 10BASE2 network?
A. CSMA/CD
B. central hub
C. UTP
D. BNC

13 __________ is sometimes called “Fast Ethernet.”
A. 10BASE-T
B. 10BASE5
C. 100VG-AnyLAN
D. 100BASE-X

14. A Token Ring network using STP cabling can support_________ computers.
A. 60
B. 260
C. 500
D. 1,024

15. The _________ field of a Token Ring frame is updated by the destination PC.
A. destination address
B. frame check sequence
C. end delimiter
D. frame status

16. Which two of the following statements are true?
A. Coax Ethernet is a physical bus and a logical bus.
B. 10BASE-T Ethernet is a physical bus and a logical bus.
C. Coax Ethernet is a physical star and a logical bus.
D. 10BASE-T Ethernet is a physical star and a logical bus.

17. What is the main advantage of using 10BASE2 when network segments don’t have to exceed 185 meters?
A. It is relatively simple to connect.
B. Drop cables can be used, making it easier to troubleshoot.
C. Each node connects directly to the cable.
D. It is the least expensive of the cabling options.

18. Which two of the Ethernet topologies require that each end of the bus be terminated?
A. 10BASE2
B. 10BASE5
C. 10BASE-T
D. Thinnet

19. Which of the following isn’t an advantage of using 10BASE-T for cabling a network?
A. It is easier and more reliable to manage.
B. Centralized hubs make it easier to detect bad cable segments.
C. Beaconing helps to isolate cable breaks.


1. Which three of the following are Transport layer protocols?
A. ATP
B. IPX
C. TCP
D. SPX

2. Which three of the following are Network layer protocols?
A. NWLink
B. IPX
C. TCP
D. IP

3. SMB operates at the __________ protocol layer.
A. Application
B. Transport
C. Network
D. Physical

4. Which three of the following protocols are available with Windows NT?
A. AppleTalk
B. IPX/SPX
C. NetBEUI
D. DLC

5. The best protocol for an isolated LAN with several DOSbased clients is __________.
A. NWLink
B. TCP/IP
C. DLC
D. NetBEUI

6. The best protocol for a remote PC that interacts with the network via the Internet is _______.
A. NWLink
B. TCP/IP
C. DLC
D. NetBEUI

7. NCP operates at the __________ protocol level(s).
A. Application and Presentation
B. Transport and Network
C. Network only
D. Transport only

8. DDP operates at the __________ protocol level(s).
A. Application and Presentation
B. Transport and Network
C. Network only
D. Transport only


1. Your LAN includes computers in two rooms at different ends of the company office. The cables connecting the rooms exceed the maximum cabling distance for the transmission
medium, and the network is experiencing problems due to signal loss in the long cables. The cheapest and simplest solutions would be to add a __________.
A. router
B. repeater
C. bridge
D. brouter

2. Your Ethernet LAN is experiencing performance problems due to heavy traffic. A simple solution would be to add a __________.
A. gateway
B. repeater
C. bridge
D. router

3. The __________ algorithm enables bridges to operate on a network with redundant routes.
A. distance vector
B. link-state
C. spanning tree
D. learning tree

4. You need to connect a Windows NT LAN with a Unix network. To do so, you will need a __________.
A. bridge
B. gateway
C. brouter
D. router

5. You need to connect a Token Ring and an Ethernet LAN segment. To do so, you will need a ___.
A. repeater
B. bridge
C. remote bridge
D. router

6. A __________ uses a routing table to determine where to send a packet.
A. bridge
B. router
C. both A and B
D. none of the above

7. Which three of the following are advantages of active hubs?
A. They can regenerate network signals.
B. LAN ranges can be extended.
C. They are inexpensive.
D. They function as repeaters.

8. Which two networks can use passive hubs?
A. Ethernet
B. ARCnet
C. Token Ring
D. All the above

9. Which two of the following features can add intelligence to a hub?
A. Signal regeneration
B. Network-management protocols
C. Multiport repeaters
D. Switching circuitry

10. Which two statements are true of repeaters?
A. Repeaters filter network traffic.
B. Repeaters extend network distances.
C. Repeaters regenerate signals.
D. Repeaters operate at the OSI Data Link layer.

11. Which three statements are true of bridges?
A. Bridges amplify and regenerate signals.
B. Bridges can connect logically separate networks.
C. Bridges use device address tables to route messages.
D. Bridges divide networks into smaller segments.

1. __________ signaling is characterized by discrete states.
A. Analog
B. Digital
C. Frequency modulation
D. None of the above

2. The DS-0 service level provides a transmission rate of __________.
A. 64 Kbps
B. 128 Kbps
C. 1.544 Mbps
D. 45 Mbps

3. A T3 line provides a transmission rate of __________.
A. 64 Kbps
B. 128 Kbps
C. 1.544 Mbps
D. 45 Mbps

4. An SVC __________
A. is a permanent path. Charges are billed on a monthly basis.
B. is a permanent path. Charges are billed on a per-use basis.
C. is a temporary path created for a specific communication session.
D. is none of the above.

5. X.25 is __________ Frame Relay.
A. faster than
B. slower than
C. about the same speed as
D. nearly identical to

6. __________ was designed to provide digital communications over existing phone lines.
A. X.25
B. ISDN
C. ATM
D. Frame Relay

7. _________ is sometimes called 2B+D.
A. Primary rate ISDN
B. Basic rate X.25
C. Primary rate Frame Relay
D. Basic rate ISDN

8. A typical working speed for ATM is __________.
A. 1.544 Mbps
B. 45 Mbps
C. 155 Mbps
D. 622 Mbps

9. ATM divides data into ________ byte blocks called __________.
A. 53 / packets
B. 53 / cells
C. 56 / frames
D. 128 / cells


1. Which type of account is only available on Windows NT domain controllers?
A. User
B. Global group
C. Local group
D. Global user
2. This group usually is used to assign permissions.
A. Global
B. LAN
C. Local
D. Either Global or Local

3. Share-level permissions enable which of the following actions?
A. Defining access levels by user
B. Controlling file-level access
C. Providing no access security at all
D. Defining access levels by password

4. True or False: User-level access is less secure than share-level
access.
A. True
B. False

5. Which of the following does not add additional security to your network?
A. Auditing
B. Virus scanning
C. Data compression
D. Data encryption

6. “Log on Locally” is one example of which of the following?
A. Permissions
B. Rights
C. Privileges
D. Attributes

7. Read and Change are two types of which of the following?
A. Permissions
B. Rights
C. Privileges
D. Attributes

8. A shared printer is available to whom?
A. Everyone on the network
B. Only the person who shared it
C. Anyone with rights to the share
D. Anyone with permissions to the share

9. The __________ group includes everyone who uses a resource locally.
A. Everyone
B. Interactive
C. Creator-Owner
D. Network

10. How many times should each user be created in a single domain?
A. Once
B. Once on each domain controller
C. Once on every Windows NT-based machine
D. You should avoid creating users and use Global groups instead.


1. An incremental backup __________.
A. backs up parts of the specified file that have changed since the last backup
B. backs up and marks only those files that have changed since they were last backed up
C. backs up the files that have changed since they were last backed up but doesn’t mark them
D. backs up the files that have changed over the course of a specified time period

2. A differential backup __________.
A. backs up files that have changed since the last backup and doesn’t mark the files as having been backed up
B. backs up files that have changed since the last backup and marks the files as having been backed up
C. copies all files that have been modified within a specific time period and marks them as having been backed up
D. copies all files that have been modified within a specified time period and doesn’t mark them as having been backed up

3. The best way to reduce the effects of extra traffic caused by a network backup is to ______.
A. attach the tape drive directly to one of the servers
B. back up each server to a nearby server
C. place the computer attached to the tape drive on an isolated network segment
D. back up the servers in ascending order of the size of the backup

4. UPS stands for __________.
A. Unintentional Packet Switch
B. Unfamiliar Password Sequence
C. Unknown Polling Sequence
D. Uninterruptible Power Supply

5. RAID level 5 __________.
A. uses bit interleave data striping
B. uses block interleave data striping
C. doesn’t use data striping
D. provides parity-checking capabilities

6. RAID level 1 __________.
A. uses bit interleave data striping
B. uses block interleave data striping
C. doesn’t use data striping
D. provides parity-checking capabilities

7. The difference between disk mirroring and disk duplexing is_________.
A. disk mirroring is more reliable
B. mirrored disks share the same disk channels
C. duplexed disks share the same disk channels
D. nonexistent

8. True or False: Implementing a RAID system eliminates the need for tape backup.
A. True
B. False

9. What is the minimum number of disks needed to configure a stripe set with parity on Windows NT Server?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Seven

10. Network documentation should include which of the following?
A. Hardware installation dates and specifications
B. Copies of configuration files
C. Software licensing information
D. All of the above


1. In Windows NT, you can use ________ to install network adapter card drivers.
A. Windows NT Diagnostics
B. the System application
C. Device Manager
D. none of the above

2. The user sometimes must hardwire resource settings on a network adapter card using _____.
A. jumpers
B. resource switches
C. needle connectors
D. none of the above

3. Which two of the following are common data-bus architectures?
A. EISA
B. Pentium
C. Plug-and-Play
D. PCI

4. Which resource setting gives the device a channel for contacting the CPU?
A. IRQ
B. Base I/O port address
C. Base memory address
D. None of the above

5. Which resource setting defines a means for passing data to the adapter?
A. IRQ
B. Base I/O port address
C. Base memory address
D. None of the above

6. Which resource setting specifies a serial communications port for the network adapter?
A. IRQ
B. Base I/O port address
C. Base memory address
D. None of the above

7. Which resource setting locates a buffer for the adapter in the computer’s RAM?
A. IRQ
B. Base I/O port address
C. Base memory address
D. None of the above

8. A maximum of ________ devices can use the same IRQ simultaneously.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
9. Which two of the following enable you to check the resource settings for a network adapter card in Windows NT?
A. Device Manager
B. The Network application
C. Windows NT Diagnostics
D. The System application
10. Which of the following enables you to change the resource settings for a network adapter card in Windows NT?
A. Device Manager
B. The Network application
C. Windows NT Diagnostics
D. The System application
1. NetBIOS is an abbreviation for ________.
A. Network Basic Input/Output System
B. Network Bilateral Operating System
C. Network Binary Interchange Operating System
D. Network Bus Input/Output System
2. Which of the following is a legal NetBIOS computer name?
A. EAGLES_LODGE_PENT
B. EAGLES!@#*_PC
C. 486!!EAGLES_PC
D. EAGLES LODGE
3. Which of the following UNC paths will lead you to a file
called DOUGHNUTS on a PC called FOOD located in the
SWEETS directory of the JUNKFOOD share?
A. \\DOUGHNUTS\FOOD\SWEETS\JUNKFOOD
B. \\FOOD\JUNKFOOD\SWEETS\DOUGHNUTS
C. \\FOOD\JUNKFOOD\DOUGHNUTS
D. \\JUNKFOOD\DOUGHNUTS
4. Which of the following commands produces a list of shared resources on the computer described in Question 3?
A. Net share \\FOOD
B. Net view
C. Net view \\FOOD
D. Net view \\FOOD /shares
1.An advantage of hardware-based network monitoring tools over software-based tools is that ___.
A. they are less expensive
B. they are easier to use
C. a hardware-based tool can also serve as a PC
D. none of the above
2. Which tool would you use to determine if a Windows NT Server system displayed the same error message at the same time every day?
A. Network Monitor
B. Performance Monitor
C. Event Viewer
D. None of the above
3. Which tool would you use to determine if a Windows NT Server machine has enough RAM?
A. Network Monitor
B. Performance Monitor
C. Event Viewer
D. None of the above
1. Which three of the following are troubleshooting steps in Microsoft’s five-step troubleshooting process?
A. Collect information to identify the symptoms.
B. Develop a list of possible causes.
C. Reboot the server.
D. Set the problem’s priority.
2. MSDL stands for __________.
A. Minor Switching Delay Log
B. Microsoft Storage Device Language
C. Microsoft Domain License
D. Microsoft Download Library
3. You can use a __________ to look for breaks in network cables by measuring cable voltage.
A. protocol analyzer
B. DVM
C. TDR
D. MSDL

4. Most network problems occur at the OSI __________ layer.
A. Physical
B. Data Link
C. Network
D. Session

5. A sudden, unexpected flood of broadcast messages on the network is known as a __________.
A. net frenzy
B. tornado
C. broadcast storm
D. electric shower