Laws
1.
Source of data collected and compiled by others is
called
A)
Primary data B)
Secondary data
C) Focused data D)
None of the above
2.
Interview with a detailed standardized schedule is
called
A)
Clinical Interview
B)
Structural Interview
C) Group Interview D)
Direct Interview
3.
An Interview in which interviewer encourage the
respondent to talk freely about a given topic is
A)
Focused Interview B)
Structural Interview
C) Unstructured Interview D)
Clinical Interview
4.
A methods of collecting primary data in which a
number of individuals with a common interest interact is called
A)
Telephone Interview B)
Clinical Interview
C) Focused Interview D)
Group Interview
5.
The way or mode of gathering data is
A)
Tool B) Method C)
Technique D) Observation
6.
A Blue print of Research work is called
A)
Research Problem
B)
Research design
C) Research tools D)
Research methods
7.
The Report submitted when there is a time lag
between data collection and presentation
of Result is called
A)
Thesis B)
Interim Report C) Summary Report D) Article
8.
………….. from theory leads to Hypothesis
A)
Deduction B) induction
C) Logical deduction D) Observation
9.
Last step in problem formulation is
A)
Survey B)
Discussion
C) Literature survey
D)
Re Phrasing the Research problem
10. Methods
and issues in Social Research” is written by
A) James A. Black and Dean J. Champion
B) P.V. Young C) Mortan
Kaplan D)
William Emory
11. In
the case of Youth Bar Association vs. Union of India (SC 2016), Supreme Court held that A) Copies of FIRs,
unless the offence is sensitive in nature, should be uploaded on police web-site within 24 hours of registration
of FIR
B)
Entry tax on goods is constitutional
C)
Public service commission shall provide information
about candidates Mark sheet
under RTI
D)
None of the above
12. Use
of newspaper for packing food should be banned ; is an advisory issued by
A)
Delhi High Court
B) FSSAI C)
Supreme Court D) None of these
13. Which
amongst the following amendment Act recently makes it mandatory for every establishment having 50 or more employees to provide crèche facilities.
A)
Factories (Amendment) Act
B)
The maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act
C)
The domestic violence (Amendment) Act
D)
None of the above
14. In
State of Telangana Vs. Habib Abdullaha,
it was held :-
A)
Police have no right to investigate unless judiciary
gives directions
B)
Police has statutory right to investigage without any interference or directions from judiciary
C)
Police to upload FIR within 24 hours of its
registration
D)
None of the above
15. Which
of the following is not an eligibility criterion for election of President of
India. A) Should of the citizen of Indian
B)
Should be elected member of the house of people
C)
Should be atleast 35 years of age
D) Should
be qualified for election to the house of people
16. The
international court of justice, India is contesting the death penalty given by
Pakistan to which Indian National.
A)
Kulbushan Jadhav
B)
Kahmir Singh Jadhav
C) Sheikh Nabi Ahmed D)
Chander Charan
17. Goods
and Services Tax, 2017 ( GST) is proposed to come into effect / has came into
effect from
A)
1st July 2017 B) 31st July 2017 C)
21st July 2017 D) None
of these
18. Regarding
the issue of National Anthem being
played in Cinema Halls, Supreme Court of India has clarified in February, 2017
that
A)
Audience need not stand
when National Anthem is a part of documentary or film
B)
Audience need to stand when National Anthem is played
even in films
C)
Government need to frame guidelines
D)
None of the above
19. In
which of the following case Supreme Court held that seeking votes in election in the name of religion is
a corrupt practice
A)
Abhiram Singh Vs. CD Commachen and ors
B)
Vijendra Singh vs. State of Uttar Pardesh
C)
Sheikh Abdul vs. State of Uttar Pardesh
D)
None of the above
20. Constitution
Day also known as Samvidhan divas is celebrated in India every year on
A)
5th June B)
26th November C) 10th
December D) 26th January
21. Under
the theory of Parliamentary Sovereignty
A)
The democracy is limited
B)
The courts cannot question the laws made by the
parliament
C)
Fundamental right cannot be protected / guaranteed D) Parliament
is not responsible to the people
(2)
22. “The
basic structure of the constitution could not be abrogated even by the
constitutional Amendment”. This decision is the outcome of which of the below
cases?
A)
Golaknath vs. State of Punjab - AIR 1976 SC 1643
B)
Indira Gandhi vs. Raj Narain – 1976 Vol.(2) SCR 347
C)
Kesavananda Bharti vs. State of Kerala
- AIR 1973 SC 1461
D)
None of the above
23. In
which of the following cases has the power of Judicial Review of the constitution Amending Act been nullified by the Supreme
Court ?
A)
Golaknath vs. State of Punjab - AIR 1976 SC 1643
B)
Minerva Mills Ltd and ors vs. Union of India and ors -
AIR 1980 SC 1789
C)
Kesavananda Bharti vs. State of Kerala
- AIR 1973 SC 1461
D)
None of the above
24. Every
Proclamation under Article 352 may get a fresh lease of ____________ months
from the date it is approved by the resolution of both the House of Parliament
A)
Three B)
Six C) One and Half D)
Two
25. When
President is impeached for violation of Constitution, the charges shall be
preferred by __________ of the Parliament
A)
Lok Sabha B) Rajya
Sabha C) Either House D)
None of them
26. Article
370 of the Constitution of India
A)
Is permanent in nature
B)
Was a temporary solution until the Constituent Assembly
made its decision
C)
Was a temporary solution until the State was integrated
with India
D)
Was a temporary solution until the hostility in the
region ceases
27. A
marriage without requisite ceremonies
under Hindu Marriage Act is
A)
Null and void B)
Voidable
C) Irregular
D)
None of these
28. The
starting point the definition of cruelty was made in the following case.
A)
Russel Vs. Russel
B)
Cooper Vs. Cooper
C) Dastance Vs. Dastance D) None of these
29. Under
the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act 1956 the ceremony required is
A)
Datta Homan B)
Giving and Taking
C) Both (A) and (B) D)
None of these
30. Hanuman
Prasad Panday Vs. MST Baboee is the case related to
A)
Adoption B)
Guardian Ship
C) Marriage
D)
Succession
31. T.
Sareetha vs. Venkatsubbaiah isa case relating to
A)
Partition of property B)
Conjugal right
C) Inheritance D)
None of these
32. Which
one of the Hindu succession Act, 1956
makes provision for notional partition?
A)
Section 10 B) Section 14 C)
Section 6 D)
Section 18
(3)
33. A
Surety may be discharged from his liability
A) By
variance in the terms of contract
B)
By release of discharge of principal debtor
C)
By loss of surety by the creditor
D) All
of the above
34. When
the parties to a contract agree to substitute the existing contract for new contract, it is called
A) Novation B)
Alteration C) Rescission D) All of these
35. A
right to sue on quantum meruit arises
A)
When a party has fully performed the contract
B)
When a party has partly performed the contract and is
discharge because of breach of contract by another party
C)
When contract is discharge by impossibility of
performance
D)
All of these
36. Consideration
in case of contract
A) Must have some value in the eyes
of law B) Must be real C)
Must not be illusory D) All are correct
37. An
agent was directed by principal to store the goods in godown ‘A’. But the agents stores the goods in godown ‘B’
A)
Agent will be liable for accidental loss to the goods
only when negligence can be proved on his part.
B)
Agent will be liable for accidental loss to the goods
even when no negligence can be proved
C)
Agent will not be liable for loss to goods
D)
None of the
above
38. Promissory
estoppels is sometimes spoken as a substitute for
A) Novation B)
Quasi contract C) Consideration D) Coercion
39. ...................................
as defined in IPC means use of force or violence by an un lawful assembly or by any member there
of in prosecution of common object of
that assembly.
A) Unlawful assembly B) Rioting
C) Affray D) Dacoity
40. Dacoity
is committed.
A) When
two or more persons commits or attempt to commit robbery
B)
When five or more persons conjointly commits or
attempts to commit robbery
C)
When theft is committed with fire arms or lethal weapon
D) When seven
or more persons are engaged in an incident 41. In criminal law, the successful
prosecution means A) Acquittal of the
accused
B)
Conviction of the accused
C)
The accused is discharged unconditionally
D) Punishment
to the accused as per law
42. If a citizen of India commits any offence outside India he
A)
Cannot be prosecuted in India, as the act was not
committed in India
B)
Can be prosecuted in a country where offence was
committed
C)
Can be prosecuted in India in any place in which he may
be found
D)
Cannot neither be prosecuted in India nor in a country
where the crime was
committed?
43. Which of the
following is not essential in case of offence of kidnapping
A) Minor
Child
B)
Intention of the
accused
C)
Without the permission of lawful guidance
D) None
of the above
44. Punishment
for being a member of unlawful assembly under Indian Penal Code has been
provided under
A) Section 141 B)
Section 142 C) Section 143 D) Section 146
45. Robert
Nozick's proposes the formula r x H as a guide to determine the appropriate punishment.
What does it mean?
A)
Effectiveness of rehabilitation multiplied by Hazard to
the community
B)
Extent of responsibility multiplied by actual Harm done
C)
Risk of violence multiplied by degree of Humility of
offender
D)
Recidivism multiplied by defendant's History
46. Legal Realism
is the theory of law according to which ‘law is the _______ of court
A) Wisdom B)
Understanding C) Practice D) Weapon
47. Which position does Rawls claim is
the least likely to be adopted by the POP (people in the original position)?
A) The POP would choose
equality above liberty B) The POP would opt for the 'maximin' strategy
C)
The POP would opt for the 'difference principle'
D) The
POP would reject the 'system of natural liberty.'
48. What is
analytical jurisprudence?
A) The critical analysis of legal decisions B) A sociological method to analyse legal
systems
C)
The study of what the law is D)
None of above 49. What is Utilitarianism?
A)
A philosophical approach according to which laws are
valid only if they benefit the greater good
B)
The idea that all individuals should benefit equally
from law's usefulness
C)
The idea that the collective good prevails over
individual rights D) None of these
50. Person in
“Possession” has better title against
the whole world except the real owner.
This principle has been illustrated in which of the
following case?
A) Armory
vs. Delamirie B) Bridges vs. Howkes worth C) R vs. Moor D) Re Cohen’s Case
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